Protolanguage

[African Itelmen]

I believe in the monogenesis of all human languages because all human beings are the one biological kind (Homo sapiens). But there is a chronological limit (somewhere about ten thousand years maybe) when languages become unrelated. Unrelated languages are languages without pure signs of relationship.

[דנה]

(02-19-2010 07:37 PM)African Itelmen Wrote:  I believe in the monogenesis of all human languages because all human beings are the one biological kind (Homo sapiens).

It's not an argument.
As for me, I believe in polygenesis.

[African Itelmen]

Why? The one kind means that there was the one language in the one little population of the first Homo sapiens people before further migrations and isolations.

[pico_pico]

(02-19-2010 07:37 PM)African Itelmen Wrote:  I believe in the monogenesis of all human languages because all human beings are the one biological kind (Homo sapiens). But there is a chronological limit (somewhere about ten thousand years maybe) when languages become unrelated. Unrelated languages are languages without pure signs of relationship.

DNA data analysis is a bit out of base 'cause we might not have originated from stricktly one pair but from a certain group which members had similar DNA.

[African Itelmen]

Or maybe paleolithic shamans created artificial drastically different languages? O_o

[African Itelmen]

But I don't believe that many clear families and isolate languages are true isolates.
I certainly believe that they have lost a clear relationship with other languages.
This is no madness, this is a reserve path for possible distant relationship between some languages.
I hope that you are understanding my opinion.

[pico_pico]

I see what you mean but I know that we can't research things that left no traces.

---

(02-19-2010 08:29 PM)African Itelmen Wrote:  Or maybe paleolithic shamans created artificial drastically different languages? O_o

Stop trolling over here.

[African Itelmen]

OK, OK, where is a limit of clear relationship's traces between languages?
What is a deepest layer of any language structure?
Where is the influence of other languages aspires to zero?

I think that Indo-European and Semitic families are valid because there are ancient written sources only.
Several hundreds of families in the world may be valid because there are not ancient written sources only.
Maybe that is a reason for many controversial megafamilies.
People think that there are may be a little number of highest families because we know about several families with a long history.
But there are not ancient sources of clear validity for many other families.